One needs to see free will from a philosophical materialist's point of view (including economics, political structures, endocrine systems and so on) rather than seeing it from the philosophical moralist's point of view. The moralist is only interested in dispensing blame.
Nothing in the materialist's viewpoint is absolute, but everything is relative and dialectical. That is why there is no point in saying something like "free will either does or does not pertain".
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